[Swift-devel] Call function.

[Jonathan Monette]

Well that case should be valid shouldn't it?  I may have misunderstood the validity of overwritten functions.  I know in Java you could have several methods named with the same identifier and which method that was called was determined at compile time based on the argument signature.  So this seems like it should be a valid case but again I may have misunderstood the discussion on re-defining functions.


On Aug 15, 2011, at 12:56 AM, Yadu Nand wrote:

>> What if I have two functions:
>> (type1) f(type2)
>> (type4) f(type5)
>> ?
> 
> Wouldn't the second definition overwrite the first ? In effect only the
> second one would be valid unless ofcourse the checks for redefinition
> of procedures has gone into trunk and made this illegal.
> Or , did you mean something else ?
> 
> -- 
> Thanks and Regards,
> Yadu Nand B
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